Sequence of Tenses: Translating the subjunctiveHelp finding the use of the subjunctiveMemento quod <subjunctive>Does using quippe in a relative clause require conjunctive?What is the optative?Can a subjunctive verb ever be modified by οὐ? (Greek)“..so that others may live”, future subjunctive?Passive Subjunctive Translated as ActiveWhich adverbs of possibility and probability warrant the subjunctive?When to use cum + subjunctive and when cum + indicativeReflexive Pronouns & Indirect StatementsAccusative in genitive relative clause with verb finiebat
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Sequence of Tenses: Translating the subjunctive
Help finding the use of the subjunctiveMemento quod <subjunctive>Does using quippe in a relative clause require conjunctive?What is the optative?Can a subjunctive verb ever be modified by οὐ? (Greek)“..so that others may live”, future subjunctive?Passive Subjunctive Translated as ActiveWhich adverbs of possibility and probability warrant the subjunctive?When to use cum + subjunctive and when cum + indicativeReflexive Pronouns & Indirect StatementsAccusative in genitive relative clause with verb finiebat
This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.
The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.
My questions are:
- Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?
- Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?
There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.
coniunctivus purpose-clause
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This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.
The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.
My questions are:
- Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?
- Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?
There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.
coniunctivus purpose-clause
New contributor
Kevin Miller is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
add a comment |
This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.
The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.
My questions are:
- Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?
- Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?
There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.
coniunctivus purpose-clause
New contributor
Kevin Miller is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
Check out our Code of Conduct.
This is probably a pretty basic question, but I am new to Latin and am having trouble understanding the subjunctive.
The sentence "Pūgnāverō ut nautam superem" is translated to "I shall have fought in order that I may overcome the sailor" (according to my textbook). I understand that pūgnāverō is active, indicative, future perfect, first person, singular, which so far I would have believed to be translated as "I will have fought (already)." I am confused because my book uses the word "shall," which to me signals that it is subjunctive.
My questions are:
- Am I misunderstanding the way "shall" is used?
- Is this something that only occurs in clauses of purpose, i.e., is this occurring because "superem" is subjunctive?
There is a similar post here, but I feel it does not answer my question.
coniunctivus purpose-clause
coniunctivus purpose-clause
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New contributor
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asked 2 hours ago
Kevin MillerKevin Miller
1284
1284
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2 Answers
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You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
1 hour ago
add a comment |
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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2 Answers
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active
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You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
1 hour ago
add a comment |
You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
1 hour ago
add a comment |
You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
You're misunderstanding 'shall.' The traditional convention ('rule') in English is that 'shall' is used with first person subjects (I/we) to form the future and future perfect tenses, whereas 'will' is used for second person (you) and third person (he/she/it/they).* Your textbook is clearly following this convention. The fact that there's also a purpose clause in the sentence has nothing to do with it.
* (Except in emphatic utterances, where the future expresses strong determination to do something; in such cases, 'will' is traditionally used for the first person, 'shall' for the second and third persons.)
edited 1 hour ago
answered 2 hours ago
cnreadcnread
8,90711124
8,90711124
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
1 hour ago
add a comment |
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
1 hour ago
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
1 hour ago
I had no idea this was a normal convention. Thanks!
– Kevin Miller
1 hour ago
add a comment |
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
add a comment |
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
add a comment |
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
The future-perfect is a primary tense for something that has still to be completed; "already" would refer to the past. This is a purpose/ final clause therefore, after ut, the present subjunctive is deployed--superem.
answered 1 hour ago
tonytony
67715
67715
add a comment |
add a comment |
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